Hebrews 7:11 Therefore, if there indeed was completion through the Levitical priesthood (for the people had the law instituted upon it), what need was there still for a different priest to rise up according to the order of Melchizedek and not to be called according to the order of Aaron?

MLV⁽ⁱ⁾ ¹¹ Therefore, if there indeed was completion through the Levitical priesthood (for the people had the law instituted upon it), what need was there still for a different priest to rise up according to the order of Melchizedek and not to be called according to the order of Aaron?